[ilds] Durrell's verbal style -- more questions

Marc Piel marcpiel at interdesign.fr
Wed Jun 13 12:29:59 PDT 2007


Surely it is all "Durrellian"; a drunk is still 
himself even under the influence of makes him 
appear otherwise.
Marc Piel

william godshalk wrote:
> Bruce, thanks for taking my test! You get an A.
> 
> When I started using "appropriated," I was trying to move away from the 
> word "stole" or "stolen." Brian Vickers's Appropriating Shakespeare is 
> about using Shakespeare's text for one's own ends and designs. Thus we 
> have the historical Shakespeare, the feminist Shakespeare, the 
> presentist Shakespeare, and so on and on . . . .  So I was trying to see 
> Durrell as using other people's writing for his own purposes. Not an 
> outright theft exactly.
> 
> What I was getting at is: if any reader were given a passage from 
> Durrell -- a passage that Durrell has at least partially appropriated -- 
> would the reader be able to separate the Durrellian style from, say, the 
> Xenophonian/Warnerian style? We have said that the Durrellian style is 
> unique. If this is so, we should be able to tell when Warner's 
> translation ends and Durrell begins in his own style.
> 
> Or is no ear quite that good?
> 
> Bill
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